1. How many marks is Paper 1 worth in total?
A. 40 marks
B. 80 marks
C. 50 marks
D. 60 marks

2. How long do you have to complete Paper 1?
A. 1 hour 30 minutes
B. 2 hours
C. 1 hour 55 minutes
D. 1 hour 45 minutes

3. What type of texts appear in Paper 1?
A. Two fiction texts from the 20th century
B. Two non-fiction texts from the 19th century
C. One fiction and one non-fiction text
D. Two contemporary texts

4. How many questions are in Section A of Paper 1?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

5. In Paper 1, how many marks is Question 1 worth?
A. 2 marks
B. 4 marks
C. 6 marks
D. 8 marks

6. In Paper 1, how many marks is Question 3 worth?
A. 6 marks
B. 8 marks
C. 10 marks
D. 12 marks

7. What type of texts appear in Paper 2?
A. Two 19th century non-fiction texts
B. Two 20th century fiction texts
C. One fiction and one non-fiction, 20th/21st century
D. Two persuasive texts

8. How many marks is Paper 2 Question 1 worth?
A. 1 mark
B. 2 marks
C. 4 marks
D. 6 marks

9. In Paper 2, how many marks is Question 4 worth?
A. 6 marks
B. 8 marks
C. 10 marks
D. 12 marks

10. In Paper 2, how many marks is Question 5 worth?
A. 4 marks
B. 6 marks
C. 8 marks
D. 10 marks

11. In Paper 2, how many marks is Question 6 worth?
A. 10 marks
B. 12 marks
C. 16 marks
D. 20 marks

12. How many marks is the creative writing question worth in total on Paper 2?
A. 24 marks
B. 32 marks
C. 40 marks
D. 36 marks

13. Without extra time, how long should you spend on Paper 1 Question 1?
A. 2.5 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes

14. Without extra time, how long should you spend on Paper 1 Question 3?
A. 10 minutes
B. 12 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

15. Without extra time, how long should you spend on Paper 1 Question 6?
A. 15 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 25 minutes
D. 30 minutes

16. Without extra time, how long should you spend on Paper 1 Question 7 or 8?
A. 30 minutes
B. 40 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 50 minutes

17. Without extra time, how long should you spend on Paper 2 Question 2?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

18. Without extra time, how long should you spend on Paper 2 Question 4?
A. 10 minutes
B. 12 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

19. What does Paper 1 Question 1 ask you to do?
A. Evaluate how successfully the writer persuades
B. Identify four points from the text
C. Analyse language techniques
D. Compare two texts

20. What does Paper 1 Question 2 ask you to do?
A. Identify four points from the text
B. Analyse language and structure
C. Evaluate how successfully something is achieved
D. Compare two writers’ ideas

21. What does Paper 1 Question 3 always ask about?
A. How the writer uses language to persuade
B. How the writer uses language to interest and inform
C. How the writer uses structure to engage
D. How the writer uses facts and opinions

22. What is the key difference between Paper 2 Q4 and Q2?
A. Q4 is worth more marks
B. Q4 requires both language AND structure
C. Q4 uses a different text
D. Q4 requires three paragraphs

23. In Paper 1 Q4, the four marks are split how?
A. All four from one section
B. Two marks for 4a and two marks for 4b
C. Three marks for 4a and one for 4b
D. One mark each across four parts

24. What is the maximum marks you can get for P2 Q4 if you only discuss language but not structure?
A. 10 marks
B. 8 marks
C. 6 marks
D. 4 marks

25. What does the P in PETEL stand for?
A. Persuasion
B. Point
C. Purpose
D. Paragraph

26. What does the first E in PETEL stand for?
A. Explanation
B. Emphasis
C. Evidence
D. Evaluation

27. What does the T in PETEL stand for?
A. Text
B. Technique
C. Tone
D. Theme

28. What does the second E in PETEL stand for?
A. Emphasis
B. Evidence
C. Effect
D. Explanation

29. What does the L in PETEL stand for?
A. Language
B. Level
C. Link
D. List

30. In PETEL, what does the ‘Effect’ element ask you to consider?
A. The method used
B. What the quote makes the reader think, feel or understand
C. The writer’s background
D. The genre of the text

31. What does the D in DAAFORREST stand for?
A. Description
B. Direct address
C. Determiner
D. Dramatic language

32. What does neither A in DAAFORREST stand for?
A. Adjective
B. Alliteration
C. Anecdote

33. What does the F in DAAFORREST stand for?
A. Fiction
B. Form
C. Fact
D. Figurative language

34. What does the O in DAAFORREST stand for?
A. Onomatopoeia
B. Opinion
C. Overview
D. Oxymoron

35. What does the S in DAAFORREST stand for?
A. Simile
B. Sensory language
C. Statistic
D. Statement

36. What does SMARTPOSE help you write?
A. Non-fiction writing
B. Fiction (creative) writing
C. Comparison essays
D. Evaluation answers

37. What does neither S in SMARTPOSE stand for?
A. Statistic
B. Sensory language
C. Simile

38. What does the M in SMARTPOSE stand for?
A. Method
B. Metaphor
C. Mood
D. Modifier

39. What does the P in SMARTPOSE stand for?
A. Point
B. Persuasion
C. Personification
D. Preposition

40. What does the O in SMARTPOSE stand for?
A. Opinion
B. Overview
C. Onomatopoeia
D. Oxymoron

41. What is a metaphor?
A. Comparing two things using like or as
B. Stating that something IS something else (not literally)
C. Using the same starting sound
D. Giving human qualities to an object

42. What is personification?
A. Comparing two ideas using ‘like’ or ‘as’
B. Using a word more than once for emphasis
C. Giving human qualities to something that is not human
D. Words that sound like the noise they describe

43. What is alliteration?
A. Three words used for emphasis
B. Using a word more than once
C. Two or more words sharing the same starting sound
D. Words describing the senses

44. What is onomatopoeia?
A. Words emulating the sound they describe
B. Words that rhyme
C. Comparing two ideas
D. Using the five senses

45. What is a triplet?
A. A simile using three words
B. Three words or ideas used together for emphasis
C. Three separate paragraphs
D. A list of three metaphors

46. What is emotive language?
A. Words describing the five senses
B. Words used to show feelings or create strong reactions
C. Words that compare two ideas
D. Words at the start of a sentence

47. What is sensory language?
A. Language describing smell only
B. Language describing what can be heard, seen, felt, tasted and/or smelled
C. Language that uses similes and metaphors
D. Language used in non-fiction only

48. What is repetition?
A. A word or idea used more than once for emphasis
B. Using three similar ideas together
C. Two or more words with the same starting sound
D. Giving human qualities to an object

49. What is a noun?
A. A doing or action word
B. A place, person or thing
C. A word that describes a verb
D. A word that describes a noun

50. What is an adjective?
A. A doing or action word
B. A place, person or thing
C. A word that describes a noun
D. A word that describes a verb

51. What is a verb?
A. A word describing a noun
B. A word describing a verb
C. A doing or action word
D. A place, person or thing

52. What is an adverb?
A. A word that describes a verb
B. A doing or action word
C. A word that describes a noun
D. A place, person or thing

53. What is an abstract noun?
A. The unique name of a specific place or person
B. A general word for a person, place or thing
C. Something that cannot be seen or touched but exists (e.g. love, fear)
D. A word used before a noun to show amount

54. What is a determiner?
A. A word describing a noun
B. A word used before nouns to show amount or belonging (e.g. a, the, five)
C. A doing or action word
D. A word showing where something happens

55. What is a declarative sentence?
A. A question
B. A command
C. A statement ending with a full stop
D. A sentence showing extreme emotion

56. What is an interrogative sentence?
A. A statement ending with a full stop
B. A question ending with a question mark
C. A command ending with an exclamation mark
D. A sentence expressing strong emotion

57. What is an imperative sentence?
A. A question
B. A statement
C. A command
D. A sentence showing extreme emotion

58. What is an exclamative sentence?
A. A sentence that is very long
B. A statement ending with a full stop
C. A sentence showing extreme emotion ending with an exclamation mark
D. A question

59. Which sentence type would most likely appear in a persuasive text to challenge the reader?
A. Declarative
B. Interrogative (rhetorical question)
C. Imperative
D. Exclamative

60. For the creative writing question, how many paragraphs should you aim to write?
A. 3 paragraphs
B. 4 paragraphs
C. 5 paragraphs
D. 6 paragraphs

61. How many DAAFORREST or SMARTPOSE techniques should you aim to include in your creative writing?
A. At least 3
B. At least 5
C. At least 7
D. At least 10

62. How many different types of punctuation should you aim to use in creative writing?
A. At least 3
B. At least 5
C. At least 7
D. At least 10

63. How long should you spend planning your creative writing?
A. No more than 5 minutes
B. No more than 10 minutes
C. No more than 15 minutes
D. At least 20 minutes

64. For Paper 2 creative writing, what type of writing are you completing?
A. Non-fiction writing using DAAFORREST
B. Fiction writing using SMARTPOSE
C. A letter using DAAFORREST
D. A speech using SMARTPOSE

65. For Paper 1 creative writing, what type of writing are you completing?
A. Fiction writing using SMARTPOSE
B. Non-fiction writing using DAAFORREST
C. A diary entry
D. A newspaper report

66. To reach Level 3 in creative writing content, your paragraphs and structure must be…
A. Basic and simple
B. Clear and effective
C. Sophisticated and varied
D. Present but limited

67. To reach Level 5 in the SPaG section, how many punctuation types should you use?
A. At least 3
B. At least 4
C. At least 5
D. 6 or more

68. If your creative writing is at Level 2 for content, what mark range does this cover?
A. 1-4 marks
B. 5-9 marks
C. 10-14 marks
D. 15-19 marks

69. In the creative writing mark scheme, which level describes ‘sophisticated, imaginative communication’?
A. Level 3
B. Level 4
C. Level 5
D. Level 2

70. What is the correct opening for a Paper 1 Question 2 answer?
A. In the text, the writer says…
B. The writer successfully/unsuccessfully shows that…
C. The writer uses the technique of…
D. At the beginning of the text…

71. What is the correct opening for a Paper 1 Question 3 answer?
A. The writer successfully shows…
B. In my view, this text…
C. At the beginning of the text, the writer discusses…
D. Both texts show that…

72. What is the correct opening for a Paper 1 Question 6 answer?
A. At the beginning of the text…
B. Both texts…
C. I fully/partly agree/disagree with this opinion because…
D. The writer successfully shows…

73. What is the correct structure for a Paper 2 Q5 similarity answer?
A. The writer uses…
B. I believe that…
C. One similarity is that in both texts… Text one says… Text two says…
D. At the beginning of the extract…

74. What phrase should you use to open each paragraph in Paper 2 Q6 after the first?
A. Also…
B. Furthermore, in this text…
C. A comparative/linking word + the next point about a text
D. In addition, the writer…

75. What should every high-scoring Paper 2 Q6 answer start and end with?
A. A quotation and a technique
B. An overview sentence and an evaluative sentence
C. A point about language and a point about structure
D. A question and an answer

76. Which of these is a word used to show SIMILARITY between two texts?
A. However
B. Whereas
C. Similarly
D. In contrast

77. Which of these is used to show DIFFERENCE between two texts?
A. Also
B. Likewise
C. Equally
D. On the other hand

78. Which of these is a word used to show SIMILARITY?
A. But
B. However
C. Unlike
D. Equally

79. Which of these is used to show DIFFERENCE?
A. Similarly
B. Too
C. Alternatively
D. As well

80. What does ‘form’ mean in English?
A. The language techniques used
B. The text type, e.g. speech, letter, article
C. The writer’s intentions
D. The structure of the text

81. Which of these is a non-fiction text form you might be asked to write in Paper 1?
A. A short story
B. A novel extract
C. A persuasive letter
D. A poem

82. Which of these is a fiction writing task for Paper 2?
A. Write a letter to a newspaper
B. Write a speech about a local issue
C. Write an imaginative story
D. Write a review of a book

83. What opening words would you use to begin a formal letter?
A. Hello there,
B. Hey,
C. Dear [name/sir/madam],

84. What opening words might you use to begin a speech?
A. Once upon a time…
B. Dear Diary…
C. I am here today to discuss…
D. To whom it may concern…

85. When does SPaG (spelling, punctuation and grammar) really matter in the exam?
A. Question 1 and Question 2 only
B. All reading questions
C. Only the creative writing question (Q7 or Q8)
D. All questions equally

86. Which of these sentences is correctly punctuated?
A. The writer uses emotive language it makes the reader feel sad.
B. The writer uses emotive language, it makes the reader feel sad.
C. The writer uses emotive language; it makes the reader feel sad.
D. The writer uses emotive language it makes the reader feel sad!

87. Which sentence uses an apostrophe correctly?
A. The writer’s use of metaphor is effective.
B. The writers use of metaphor is effective.
C. The writer’s’ use of metaphor is effective.
D. The writers’ use of metaphor is effective.

88. Which opening correctly uses a capital letter?
A. at the beginning of the text, the writer…
B. At The Beginning Of The Text, the writer…
C. At the beginning of the text, the writer…
D. at The beginning of the text, the writer…

89. Which sentence is in the correct tense for an analytical essay?
A. The writer used emotive language.
B. The writer uses emotive language.
C. The writer will use emotive language.
D. The writer had used emotive language.

90. In Paper 1 Q2, you should use the word ‘successful’ how many times in your answer?
A. At least twice
B. At least four times
C. Around six times
D. As many as possible

91. In Paper 1 Q3, which three sections of the text should you choose quotes from?
A. The first three paragraphs
B. The start, middle and end of the text
C. Paragraph one only
D. Any three consecutive lines

92. In Paper 1 Q6, you can agree with the given opinion. Can you also disagree or partly agree?
A. No, you must fully agree
B. No, you must fully disagree
C. Yes, any position is fine as long as you support it with quotes
D. Only if the question says so

93. What should you do if you finish the creative writing question with 5 minutes to spare?
A. Start another question
B. Add more paragraphs
C. Proof-read your work
D. Write a plan

94. A top structural tip between paragraphs 2 and 3 in creative writing is to what?
A. Add a long descriptive passage
B. Add a one-sentence paragraph that is a rhetorical question
C. Add a statistic
D. Use direct address to the reader

95. In Paper 2 Q4, why should every paragraph start with what the writer is focusing on?
A. Because it shows you can summarise
B. Because focus is a structural technique and you must discuss structure
C. Because it makes your answer longer
D. Because the mark scheme requires an introduction

96. What is the Spoken Language assessment?
A. A written essay about a speech
B. A 5-minute presentation followed by questions
C. A group debate
D. A reading aloud task

97. Does the Spoken Language score affect your overall GCSE English Language grade?
A. Yes, it counts for 20% of the grade
B. Yes, it counts for 10% of the grade
C. No, it is separate and does not affect the grade
D. Only if you get a Distinction

98. What are the three possible grades for Spoken Language?
A. Pass, Merit or Distinction
B. Grade 1, Grade 2 or Grade 3
C. Bronze, Silver or Gold
D. Fail, Pass or Distinction